What did Jesus have to say about homosexuals? Been a while since I read the bible, but I seem to remember it was in Leviticus (OT). If nothing in the NT, does that mean it is ok?
If christians are no longer under the laws of the OT, why do many use OT passages as a reason for their beliefs?
Seems to me that if one quotes OT law to support their arguement, then they are also obligated to support other OT laws.
Not trying to be an ass here, just trying to learn something.




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