The NT also condemns it, I'll give one example but there are others as well.
Romans Chapter 1
24 Therefore God gave them over in the lusts of their hearts to impurity, so that their bodies would be dishonored among them.
25 For they exchanged the truth of God for a lie, and worshiped and served the creature rather than the Creator, who is blessed fnforever. Amen
26 For this reason God gave them over to degrading passions; for their women exchanged the natural function for that which is unnatural,
27 and in the same way also the men abandoned the natural function of the woman and burned in their desire toward one another, men with men committing indecent acts and receiving in their own persons the due penalty of their error.
One thing to understand is that the moral laws, guidance, lessons, wisdom, etc we learn from the OT is still applicable. Like the verse I quoted in my pervious post, Jesus didn't abolish, but fulfilled and there is a big difference. Also just for a little added information there are references to homosexuality in the OT as far back as Genesis, even before the laws were handed down which made it clear that it was wrong. So again the bible is consistent in this teaching,If christians are no longer under the laws of the OT, why do many use OT passages as a reason for their beliefs?
It is not an easy topic of discussion, but my main point is that when Christians hold that view it is not formed exclusively from isolated verses of the OT, and when a Christian doesn't adhere to ceremonial laws given to the Israelites it doesn't make them a hypocrite.
I hope this helps to answer your questions




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